By IG Share Share Preparing for a technical interview on Windows Server 2025? Put your skills to the test with our interactive, scenario-based quiz. We cover the latest features like Hotpatching and SMB over QUIC, alongside core administrative concepts in Active Directory, DNS, and PowerShell. Select your answers to get immediate feedback and detailed explanations to sharpen your expertise. GigXP.com | Windows Server 2025 Interview Scenarios GigXP.com Your Gateway to Tech Expertise Windows Server 2025: Interview Scenarios Test your knowledge with these real-world comparison questions. Module 1: Innovations in Security & Identity Scenario 1: Security Hardening An administrator performs a default installation of Windows Server 2025. How does its out-of-the-box security posture for credential protection compare to a default installation of Windows Server 2019? A. Both require manual enablement of Credential Guard via Group Policy for protection. B. Server 2025 enables Credential Guard by default on compatible hardware, whereas Server 2019 does not. C. Server 2019 enables Credential Guard by default, while Server 2025 makes it a deprecated feature. D. Both systems rely solely on Windows Defender and do not include Credential Guard in default installations. Show Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Windows Server 2025 represents a major philosophical shift to a "secure-by-default" model. A key example is that Credential Guard, which mitigates Pass-the-Hash attacks, is enabled by default on hardware that supports Virtualization-Based Security (VBS). In contrast, on Windows Server 2019, Credential Guard was an optional feature that an administrator had to manually enable post-installation. Scenario 2: Remote File Access A company wants to provide secure file share access for remote employees without using a traditional VPN. How do the capabilities of Server 2025 Standard Edition differ from Server 2022 Datacenter: Azure Edition in this regard? A. Neither version supports VPN-less file access; both require a third-party solution. B. Both offer SMB over QUIC, but Server 2025 requires an additional license for this feature. C. Server 2022 Datacenter: Azure Edition was the only version with SMB over QUIC. Server 2025 now includes this feature in both Standard and Datacenter editions. D. Server 2025 replaces SMB over QUIC with a new protocol called SMB over HTTPS, which was not in Server 2022. Show Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: SMB over QUIC, a feature for providing secure, encrypted file access over the internet without a VPN, was previously an exclusive feature of the niche Windows Server 2022 Datacenter: Azure Edition. Microsoft has "democratized" this feature in Windows Server 2025, making it available in the mainstream Standard and Datacenter editions, which is a major enhancement for hybrid and remote work scenarios. Scenario 3: Active Directory Evolution You are planning a new Active Directory forest. What is the most significant architectural advantage of building it with all Windows Server 2025 Domain Controllers and raising the forest functional level to "Windows Server 2025"? A. It enables a new FSMO role called the "Cloud Sync Master" for Azure AD integration. B. It allows for an optional 32k database page size, dramatically increasing the scalability of multi-valued attributes on AD objects. C. It removes the need for a Global Catalog server in multi-domain forests. D. It automatically migrates the entire Active Directory database from `ntds.dit` to a SQL Server backend. Show Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The new Windows Server 2025 functional levels enable a monumental change: optional support for a 32k database page size for `ntds.dit`. This is a huge increase from the 8k page size that has been a hard-coded limitation since Windows 2000. This new page size allows for much larger objects and significantly more values in multi-valued attributes (like a user's `memberOf` list), addressing key scalability challenges in very large enterprises. Scenario 4: Server Patching & Downtime A hospital needs to minimize downtime for its on-premises Windows Servers. How does the Hotpatching feature in Server 2025 Standard Edition fundamentally change the patching cadence compared to a traditional Server 2022 Standard deployment? A. Hotpatching eliminates all reboots, allowing the server to run for years without restarting. B. It is identical; Hotpatching is only a feature for virtual machines running in Azure. C. It reduces the number of required reboots for security updates from twelve per year to four per year. D. Hotpatching only applies to driver updates, not security patches. Show Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Hotpatching, now available for on-premises Server 2025 via Azure Arc, follows a quarterly cycle. A reboot-required cumulative update (a "baseline") is installed once per quarter. For the next two months, security updates are delivered as reboot-less hotpatches. This model changes the operational cadence from a potential reboot every month to a planned reboot only four times a year, significantly improving uptime for critical systems. Scenario 16: Authentication Hardening A security audit reveals brute-force password attacks are being attempted against your file servers. Which new, default-on feature in Windows Server 2025's SMB server helps mitigate this specific threat? A. SMB Encryption B. SMB Signing C. The SMB authentication rate limiter D. The removal of NTLMv1 Show Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The SMB authentication rate limiter is a new security feature in Server 2025 designed to combat brute-force attacks. By default, it introduces a two-second delay between each failed NTLM authentication attempt. This small delay is unnoticeable to a legitimate user who mistypes a password, but it dramatically slows down automated tools that attempt thousands of passwords per second, making such attacks impractical and ineffective against a Server 2025 machine. Scenario 19: LAPS Enhancements You are implementing Windows LAPS on Server 2025. A key requirement is to make passwords easier for help desk staff to communicate verbally. Which new LAPS feature addresses this, and what is another new security feature that protects against VM snapshot rollbacks? A. Password History and Image Rollback Detection. B. Passphrase Generation and Image Rollback Detection. C. Password Filters and Automatic Account Management. D. Passphrase Generation and Password Encryption. Show Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Windows LAPS in Server 2025 introduces **Passphrase Generation**, which creates easier-to-read and type passwords (e.g., `EatYummyCaramelCandy`) for better usability. It also adds **Image Rollback Detection**, a security feature that detects when a machine's state has been reverted, which would cause the password stored in AD to be out of sync. When a rollback is detected, LAPS automatically rotates the password to restore administrative access. Scenario 23: Default Encryption You are analyzing network traffic from a new Server 2025 domain controller and notice that LDAP queries are encrypted by default. Which protocol is now enforced for this traffic, and what is the new default for TLS? A. LDAPS and TLS 1.2 B. Encrypted LDAP over RPC and SSL 3.0 C. Encrypted LDAP and TLS 1.3 D. Kerberos-encrypted LDAP and TLS 1.1 Show Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: As part of its "secure-by-default" posture, Windows Server 2025 now enforces encryption for all LDAP client connections and uses the modern TLS 1.3 protocol by default for secure communications. This protects sensitive directory lookups from eavesdropping on the network and ensures the use of a strong, modern cryptographic standard. Module 2: Foundational Administration Scenario 5: Group Policy Precedence A GPO linked at the Domain level sets the minimum password length to 8 characters. A second GPO linked to a child OU called "Finance" sets the minimum password length to 14. The Domain-level GPO is set to "Enforced". What will be the effective password policy for a user in the "Finance" OU? A. 14 characters, because the OU GPO is applied last and wins. B. 8 characters, because the "Enforced" setting on the Domain GPO overrides the OU GPO. C. The settings will conflict, causing the user to be unable to change their password. D. The effective policy will be the sum of both, requiring 22 characters. Show Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: According to the LSDOU order of processing, the OU policy would normally override the Domain policy. However, the "Enforced" (or "No Override") setting is specifically designed to prevent this. When a GPO is enforced, its settings take precedence over any conflicting settings from GPOs linked at lower levels of the AD hierarchy, ensuring critical policies are applied universally. Scenario 9: DNS Record Selection You are creating a DNS entry for a new internal web application at `webapp.corp.local`, which is hosted on a server named `srv-app-01.corp.local`. You anticipate the application may move to a different server in the future. Which DNS record type should you create for `webapp.corp.local` and why? A. An A record pointing directly to the IP address of `srv-app-01` for the best performance. B. A CNAME record pointing to `srv-app-01.corp.local` for easier future management. C. A TXT record containing the server's name for documentation purposes. D. A PTR record to enable reverse lookups for the web application. Show Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: A CNAME (Canonical Name) record is the best choice. It creates an alias, pointing `webapp.corp.local` to the actual server hostname `srv-app-01.corp.local`. If the application is moved to a new server in the future, you only need to update the A record for `srv-app-01` (or change the CNAME to point to a new server name). All services pointing to the `webapp` alias will automatically resolve to the new location without needing their own DNS records updated, simplifying management. Module 3: Performance, Storage & Virtualization Scenario 6: Developer Workloads A developer needs a new storage volume on a Server 2025 machine for compiling large source code repositories. Which new feature and underlying technology make file copy operations nearly instantaneous? A. A "Cache Drive" formatted with NTFS using Data Deduplication. B. Storage Spaces Direct using the Mirror-accelerated parity feature. C. A "Dev Drive" formatted with ReFS using the Block Cloning feature. D. An SMB share using the SMB Direct (RDMA) feature. Show Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: A Dev Drive is a specialized volume in Server 2025 formatted with the Resilient File System (ReFS). Its key performance feature is Block Cloning. Instead of physically copying data blocks when a file is duplicated, ReFS performs a fast metadata operation that points the new file's metadata to the same underlying data blocks on the disk. This makes the copy operation nearly instantaneous, regardless of the file size. This is a massive time-saver for developer workloads. Scenario 7: High-Availability AI What is the most significant advantage of using GPU Partitioning (GPU-P) in a Server 2025 Hyper-V cluster compared to using Discrete Device Assignment (DDA) in a Server 2022 cluster? A. GPU-P provides higher raw performance for a single VM than DDA. B. GPU-P allows GPU-accelerated VMs to be Live Migrated, enabling failover clustering. C. GPU-P works with any consumer-grade graphics card, while DDA requires server-grade GPUs. D. GPU-P is managed through Hyper-V Manager, while DDA requires PowerShell exclusively. Show Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The game-changing feature of GPU Partitioning is its support for high-availability. VMs using DDA were "locked" to a specific host and could not be part of a failover cluster or be live-migrated. GPU-P resolves this limitation, allowing VMs with shared GPU resources to be seamlessly moved between cluster nodes without downtime. This makes it possible to build highly available solutions for mission-critical AI/ML and VDI workloads. Module 4: Automation with PowerShell Scenario 8: Performance Monitoring Which PowerShell one-liner correctly identifies the top 3 processes consuming the most CPU time on a server? A. `Get-Process | Select-Object -First 3 -Property ProcessName, CPU` B. `Get-Process | Sort-Object CPU -Descending | Select-Object -First 3 -Property ProcessName, CPU` C. `Find-Process -TopCPU 3 | Format-Table` D. `Get-Process | Where-Object {$_.CPU -gt 100} | Select-Object -Last 3` Show Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: This one-liner demonstrates correct PowerShell pipeline usage. `Get-Process` retrieves all processes. `Sort-Object CPU -Descending` is the critical step that orders the processes from highest to lowest CPU usage. Finally, `Select-Object -First 3` filters the sorted list to show only the top three, displaying their name and CPU value for a clean report. Scenario 10: Declarative Configuration You need to apply the Microsoft-recommended security baseline to a new Server 2025 member server and ensure it doesn't drift from that configuration. Which new PowerShell module and cmdlet would you use to accomplish this declaratively? A. The `DesiredStateConfiguration` module using `Start-DscConfiguration`. B. The `GroupPolicy` module using `Invoke-GPUpdate`. C. The `OSConfig` module using `Set-OSConfigDesiredConfiguration`. D. The `Security` module using `Set-SecurityBaseline`. Show Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The new OSConfig module is the modern tool for declarative configuration and compliance in Server 2025, especially for servers managed by Azure Arc. The `Set-OSConfigDesiredConfiguration -Scenario SecurityBaselineWS2025MemberServer` command applies the built-in baseline. The OSConfig engine then continuously monitors for and automatically remediates configuration drift, making it a powerful tool for maintaining a hardened security posture. Module 5: Strategic Scenarios & Troubleshooting Scenario 11: Migration Justification Your CIO is skeptical about upgrading your Server 2019 file servers. Which argument provides the strongest business case based on a new feature in Server 2025 that directly simplifies operations and improves security for remote workers? A. The inclusion of Windows Terminal provides a better command-line experience for administrators. B. The availability of SMB over QUIC in all editions allows secure file access over the internet without a VPN. C. The increased Hyper-V memory limits allow for larger virtual file servers. D. The default installation of Azure Arc enables pay-as-you-go licensing. Show Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: SMB over QUIC is a killer feature for the modern hybrid workplace. It directly addresses the business problem of providing secure and easy file access to remote users. This eliminates the cost, complexity, and performance bottlenecks of a traditional VPN, providing a clear ROI in terms of reduced administrative overhead and improved user productivity. It's a tangible benefit that directly impacts the business's bottom line and operational efficiency. Scenario 12: Legacy Application Impact An old internal application sends email alerts using the built-in SMTP Server feature on Windows Server 2019. What will happen to this functionality if you perform an in-place upgrade of the server to Windows Server 2025? A. The SMTP feature will be automatically upgraded and will continue to function. B. The feature will be disabled but can be re-enabled from Server Manager. C. The feature is completely removed from the OS, and the application's email functionality will break. D. The feature is deprecated and will only work if the server is in a Server 2019 compatibility mode. Show Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The SMTP Server feature, along with other legacy components like WordPad, has been completely removed in Windows Server 2025. It is not deprecated or disabled; it is gone. Any migration plan for a server relying on this feature must include a project to reconfigure the application to use a modern mail relay, such as a Microsoft 365 connector or a third-party service. Failure to account for this will result in application failure. Module 6: Advanced Scenarios & Core Protocols Scenario 13: DHCP Lease Process A new client computer connects to the network and broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER packet. It receives two valid DHCPOFFER packets from two different DHCP servers. What is the client's immediate next step in the DORA process? A. It sends a DHCPACK packet to both servers to accept both offers. B. It broadcasts a DHCPREQUEST packet, identifying which server's offer it has accepted. C. It sends a DHCPDECLINE packet to the server whose offer it is rejecting. D. It waits for a third offer before making a decision. Show Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The client will typically accept the first offer it receives. Its next step is to broadcast a DHCPREQUEST packet. This broadcast is crucial because it serves two purposes: it formally requests the IP address from the chosen server, and it implicitly informs the other DHCP server that its offer was not accepted. The unchosen server then returns its offered IP address to its available pool. Scenario 14: Disaster Recovery A disaster has permanently destroyed the domain controller holding the PDC Emulator FSMO role. What is the correct procedure to restore this critical domain-wide function? A. Restore the failed DC from a system-state backup. B. Perform a graceful transfer of the role using Active Directory Users and Computers. C. Seize the role to a different, healthy DC using PowerShell or ntdsutil. D. Rebuild the entire domain from scratch as the PDC Emulator is unrecoverable. Show Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: A "seizure" is a forced transfer used only when the original FSMO role holder is permanently offline and cannot be recovered. A graceful transfer is impossible because the original DC cannot be contacted. The correct action is to connect to a healthy DC and use the `Move-ADDirectoryServerOperationMasterRole -Force` PowerShell cmdlet or the `ntdsutil` command-line tool to seize the PDC Emulator role, restoring its critical functions (time sync, password changes, account lockouts) to the domain. Scenario 15: Advanced Troubleshooting A developer's new Server 2025 VM is performing poorly during code compilation. Which new, native command-line tool allows you to trace kernel and user-space operations in real-time without modifying code to find the bottleneck? A. Performance Monitor (PerfMon) B. Resource Monitor (ResMon) C. Windows Debugger (WinDbg) D. DTrace Show Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: DTrace is the correct tool for this scenario. It's a powerful command-line utility, new in Server 2025, that provides dynamic, real-time tracing of system operations. Unlike PerfMon or ResMon, which provide high-level metrics, DTrace can trace individual system calls, file system operations, and CPU scheduler events. This allows an administrator to pinpoint the exact source of a performance bottleneck (e.g., slow disk I/O, CPU contention, or inefficient process interactions) without needing to restart services or modify the application code. Scenario 22: Recursive DNS Query A client's DNS resolver receives a query for `www.example.com` but does not have it cached. After querying a Root server, what is the immediate next type of server it queries in the iterative process? A. The authoritative name server for `example.com`. B. Another Root server for confirmation. C. The Top-Level Domain (TLD) server for `.com`. D. The client's default gateway. Show Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The DNS resolution process is hierarchical. The Root servers don't know the IP for `www.example.com`, but they know who is responsible for the `.com` domain. Therefore, the resolver's next step is to query a `.com` TLD server, which will then point the resolver to the authoritative name servers for `example.com`. Module 7: Hardening, Replication, & Advanced AD Scenario 17: Replication Topology How does the Knowledge Consistency Checker (KCC) generate the AD replication topology differently for intrasite versus intersite replication? A. It creates a hub-and-spoke model for intrasite and a full mesh for intersite. B. It manually requires an administrator to build all connection objects for both. C. It creates a redundant ring topology for intrasite and uses site links for intersite. D. It uses the same flat ring topology for both, regardless of site boundaries. Show Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The KCC's behavior is optimized for the network conditions of each scenario. For **intrasite** replication (within a fast LAN), it automatically creates a bidirectional ring topology, ensuring each DC has at least two replication partners for redundancy. For **intersite** replication (across a slower WAN), it relies on manually defined site links and their associated costs and schedules. The KCC on a designated bridgehead server in each site then creates the connection objects based on these site links to control replication traffic efficiently. Scenario 18: Server Hardening Beyond the new defaults, what is the most critical first step you should take to harden a public-facing Server 2025 web server? A. Install the latest Windows Updates. B. Configure the Windows Firewall with a "deny by default" inbound rule. C. Rename the default "Administrator" account and set a strong password. D. Remove all unnecessary server roles and features. Show Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: While all options are important hardening steps, the most critical initial action for a public-facing server is to minimize its attack surface from the network. Configuring the Windows Firewall with a default-deny inbound policy and then creating explicit "allow" rules only for necessary traffic (e.g., TCP 443 for HTTPS) provides the most significant and immediate risk reduction. This prevents attackers from even attempting to connect to and exploit other services that might be running on the server, such as RDP or SMB. Module 8: Deployment, Migration, & PowerShell Automation Scenario 20: DC Upgrade Preparation You are preparing for an in-place upgrade of a Server 2022 Domain Controller to Server 2025. What is the most critical preparatory step to ensure the health of Active Directory before starting the upgrade? A. Backing up just the `ntds.dit` file. B. Running `DCDIAG` and `repadmin /replsummary` to check for existing errors. C. Transferring all FSMO roles to another DC, as upgrades are not supported on role holders. D. Disconnecting the server from the network to isolate it during the upgrade. Show Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Before attempting a major operation like an OS upgrade on a domain controller, it is absolutely essential to verify that the Active Directory environment is healthy. Running `DCDIAG` and `repadmin` will identify any underlying replication, DNS, or configuration issues. Attempting to upgrade a DC that is already in an error state is a recipe for disaster and can lead to a failed upgrade or a corrupted directory. All other steps are good practices, but starting with a known-healthy environment is the most critical prerequisite. Scenario 21: Investigating New AD Architecture After deploying several new Server 2025 DCs, you need to verify which ones have the new 32k database page size capability. Which PowerShell command would you use to check this property? A. `Get-ADDomainController -Filter * | Select-Object Name, DatabasePageSize` B. `Get-ADForest | Select-Object -ExpandProperty DCs | Where-Object {$_.PageSize -eq 32768}` C. `Get-ADObject -LDAPFilter "(ObjectClass=nTDSDSA)" -Properties msDS-JetDBPageSize` D. `Test-ADReplicationHealth -Property PageSize` Show Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The database page size capability is stored as a new attribute on each domain controller's NTDS Settings object in the Configuration partition of Active Directory. The correct way to query this is by using the generic `Get-ADObject` cmdlet to find objects of the `nTDSDSA` class and request the `msDS-JetDBPageSize` property. A value of 32768 indicates a 32k-capable DC, while 8192 indicates a legacy 8k DC. Module 9: Hybrid Management & Modern Tools Scenario 24: Azure Arc Strategy Beyond enabling features like Hotpatching, what is the primary strategic function of Azure Arc being installed by default on Windows Server 2025? A. To provide a free, built-in backup solution for on-premises servers. B. To enforce the use of Azure for all authentication and identity services. C. To provide a unified, centralized management plane for hybrid servers via the Azure portal. D. To automatically migrate on-premises workloads to Azure virtual machines. Show Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The default inclusion of Azure Arc is a strategic move to make the Azure portal the central hub for managing all servers, regardless of their location. It extends Azure's management capabilities (like Azure Policy, Monitor, and Defender for Cloud) to on-premises and multi-cloud servers, creating a single, unified plane of glass for inventory, governance, and security across a hybrid environment. Scenario 25: Modern Command-Line Tools An administrator is setting up a new Windows Server 2025 machine and wants to automate the installation of common tools like 7-Zip and Notepad++. Which native, command-line tool is now included by default to achieve this? A. Chocolatey B. PowerShell DSC C. System Center Configuration Manager D. WinGet Show Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: WinGet is the native Windows Package Manager included by default in Server 2025. It provides a command-line interface (`winget.exe`) for discovering, installing, and upgrading applications from curated repositories. This brings a modern, scriptable package management experience to Windows, similar to what has long been available on Linux, greatly simplifying software deployment and automation. Module 10: Advanced Storage & Directory Performance Scenario 26: Storage Efficiency You are deploying a new virtualized file server on Server 2025 and want to maximize storage efficiency. How has the ReFS file system been improved in this release to help achieve this goal? A. ReFS now supports native file-level encryption. B. ReFS now has native deduplication and compression capabilities. C. ReFS now supports mounting VHDX files directly. D. ReFS performance is now identical to NTFS for all workloads. Show Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: A major enhancement in Windows Server 2025 is that the ReFS file system now includes native support for both deduplication and compression. Previously, these storage-saving features were exclusive to the NTFS file system. This allows administrators to benefit from the resilience and performance features of ReFS (like Block Cloning) while also significantly reducing the storage footprint of their data, which is especially valuable for virtualized environments and large file repositories. Scenario 27: AD Scalability on Modern Hardware Your new physical domain controllers have multiple CPU sockets and over 64 logical processors. How does the new Server 2025 forest functional level improve Active Directory's performance on this hardware? A. It enables NUMA support, allowing the LSASS process to utilize CPUs across all processor groups. B. It automatically load balances AD services across multiple virtual machines. C. It increases the maximum number of FSMO roles to better distribute the workload. D. It offloads all cryptographic operations to a dedicated hardware security module (HSM). Show Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: A key performance enhancement unlocked by the Server 2025 forest functional level is NUMA (Non-Uniform Memory Access) awareness for Active Directory. Previously, the core AD process (LSASS.exe) was limited to using CPUs within a single processor group, effectively capping it at 64 logical processors. With NUMA support, LSASS can now span multiple processor groups, allowing it to take full advantage of all available CPU cores on high-end, multi-socket servers for improved performance and scalability. 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